CAT 2019 — Slot 2

Correct answer: C

" This learning process—the embarrassments, the frustrations, the gradual sense of understanding and connection—is invariably transformative." From this sentence, the option A can be inferred. Hence it is incorrect. " After all, you can always learn another language and change who you are." From this line, option B can be inferred. Hence it is incorrect. "You are what you speak—the words that run throughout your mind are at least as fundamental to your selfhood as is your ethnicity or your gender" From this option D can be inferred. Hence it is incorrect. The author makes no mention about the inherent ability of language to evolve over time to change a person. Hence, it is not responsible for language's ability to change us. Option C is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

The author is of the opinion that learning the language of local cultures would help bridge cultural barriers. Option D is against the author's point of view. Hence it is definitely incorrect. Option A is incorrect. The author is of the opinion that the ability to communicate is far more important than the racial divide between two people. Hence it is unlikely to be the view of the author. Option C is incorrect as the author, in the passage is much more concerned about the ability to communicate that racial and gender identity of the person. Option B falls in line with the viewpoint of the author. Hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: D

"And that easily lobbed word—“Orientalist”—hardly captures the complexity of our interactions. What exactly is the dynamic when a man from Missouri observes a Zhejiang native selling lingerie to an Upper Egyptian woman? . . . If all of us now stand beside the same river, speaking in ways we all understand, who’s looking east and who’s looking west? Which way is Oriental?" From the above passage, it is clear that the author consider the word Orientalist an easily lobbied word that does not capture the complex nature of interactions between people of different cultures. The author is of the opinion that if people in different parts of the world all speak in tongues that all of them understand, then the east west divide would be broken. The author is of the opinion that learning new languages would help bridge the east west divide. There is no information provided in the passage that globalization has enabled people learn more languages and thereby mitigated cultural hierarchies and barriers. Hence, option A is incorrect. Option B is incorrect. The author never makes the claim that Orientalism has disappeared for the most part. The author makes no claim about goodwill. Hence option C is incorrect. Option D correctly encapsulates the arguments made by the author. Hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

The major idea put forth by the author is that cultural barriers can be broken down and an outsider can ingrain himself with the local culture by learning the language of the culture. The author himself says that an individual who wrestles with a difficult language would learn to be more sympathetic to outsiders. He also says that empathy is not tied to gender and race, and therefore a individual who learns languages is usually empathetic to different races in the world. Thus option B can be inferred from the passage and is incorrect. The passage makes no mention of linguistic politics. Also he is of the opinion that a person's characteristics can be changed for the good by learning another language. Hence option C can be inferred from the author's argument and is incorrect. The word orientalism itself means looking down upon middle eastern countries by the US and European countries. Hence, option D does not make sense. Option A is directly in conflict with the author's main point and that would be the major criticism by the author's critics. Hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: D

From the passage it can be inferred that though the British enjoyed political eminence in India, they felt that they were still marginalised from Indian society, and hence, to bring the Indian state to the same footing, they sought to introduce modernity, which they felt was the next logical step into Indian society. It cannot be inferred from the passage that the British introduced modernity because they believed that the cost of their eminence was not settled. Hence, option A is incorrect. The colonial enterprise tried to introduce the logic of modernity because it felt marginalized, rather than to justify the cost of colonization. Hence option B is incorrect. Option C states that the introduction of modernity developed Indian society. However, the last paragraph states that the exercise proved counterproductive, and there was a development of underdevelopment. Option C is incorrect. Option D best explains the reason for the author introducing the statement mentioned in the question. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

".....empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments." From the aforementioned lines, option A can be inferred. "What happened was the creation of a degenerate version of capitalism —what early dependency theorists called the ‘development of underdevelopment’." From these lines it can be inferred that, because modernity was imposed upon India by the British, it led to the development of underdevelopment. Option B ca be inferred. From the passage, it can be understood that feudalism underwent a transformative process into capitalism, unlike the Indian transition which happened inorganically through external factors. Hence, option D can be inferred as well. The change in British colonial policy was not induced by resistance to modernity in Indian society, but due to the perception that the British were marginalised in the context of the Indian society. Hence, option C, which cannot be inferred is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

".....empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments" From these lines option A can be inferred. Consider the lines, "e British colonial state represented the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment rationalism, entering India precisely at the moment of its greatest unchecked arrogance. . As inheritors and representatives of this discourse, which carried everything before it, this colonial state could hardly adopt for long such a self-denying attitude." Option C can be inferred from it. Consider the lines , " It had restructured everything in Europe—the productive system, the political regimes, the moral and cognitive orders—and would do the same in India, " Option D can be inferred from these lines. It is nowhere mentioned in the passage, that British colonialism faces resistence from the existing structural forms of Indian modernity. Hence , option B is the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

The first part of the passage talks about British colonial policy, which went through two policy phases. Hence, the options B and C which have military power as the introductory idea are incorrect. The second idea mentioned in the passage is about Enlightenment rationalism, of which the British colonizers were inheritors and representatives of. The subsequent ideas are about how modernity was inorganically injected into India by subjecting it to external forces. The passage further talks about how these economic alterations did not give rise to the construction of a classical capitalist economy, but rather led to the development of underdevelopment. Option A mentions all the ideas correctly and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

". Theoretically,because modernity was externally introduced, it is explanatorily unhelpful to apply the logical format of the ‘transition process’ to this pattern of change." From the given lines it can be understood that the general endogeneous method of the process of transition could not be accepted to British colonialisation of India, because modernity did not occur naturally but was externally introduced. The passage only states that initiatives for modernity were introduced to India through external sources. It does not state that all colonised societies cannot be changed by logic. Hence this option is incorrect. In the case of India, the transformational agents themselves are inorganic external forces. Hence, option C cannot be inferred. The passage nowhere states that Indian society is exogamous. Hence option D is incorrect. Option B best describes the conclusion that can be drawn from the author's statement. Hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

"In the post-colonial fervour of the 20th century, coastal capitals picked by trade-focused empires were spurned for “regionally neutral” new ones". From these lines, it can be inferred that the colonial empires had their capitals in the coasts as the empires were mostly focused on trade. It goes on to say that, post - colonisation, empires had their capitals changed to regionally neutral areas. Hence, it can be directly inferred that colonies had capitals in coasts to promote their trading interests. Option B is the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

Option B is a problem of relocating government agencies and it can be inferred from this line " Pick small, poor towns, and areas of high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers". Hence, option B is incorrect. Option C is true with respect to the passage. It can be inferred from the line " Others contend that decentralisation begets corruption by making government agencies less accountable ." Hence it is incorrect. Option D is also mentioned in the passage. Qualified workers do not want to live in smaller cities. Hence, it is also a reason for relocation not being a success. Option A is not mentioned in the passage and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: D

The word pedigree has a meaning, " history of an idea or an activity". The term long pedigree indicates that the idea has been touted with a lot of times in the past. Option D is the only option that conveys this meaning and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

The passage states that regulators perform best if they are far from the lobbying of a big city. Hence, the people who support decentralizing central government functions are likely to cite the above reason for their view. Option B and C are incorrect for this reason. Option D is incorrect as the passage states that infrastructure costs and salaries would become lower in smaller cities. The argument is used in the passage. Hence it is correct. The nexus between bureaucrats and media is not mentioned in the passage. Hence the argument is least likely to be used by people who support the decentralising of central government functions. Option A is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

"The dilemma is obvious. Pick small, poor towns, and areas of high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; opt for larger cities with infrastructure and better-qualified residents, and the country’s most deprived areas see little benefit" Option A is incorrect. The passage makes no mention of having the government agencies in the "largest" city. It talks about having them in "larger cities". Hence it is incorrect. Option C talks about the relocation of private enterprises. This is not mentioned in the passage as the passage is primarily about the relocation of government bureaucrats. Option D makes no mention of decongesting large cities. Hence it is incorrect. Option B makes the right comparison. It compares the hard task of relocating qualified workers to smaller towns, to allocating workers to larger cities, which would result in smaller towns receiving little benefit. Option B is the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

"The city is the most environmentally benign form of human settlement. Each city dweller consumes less land, less energy, less water, and produces less pollution than his counterpart in settlements of lower densities.” Calthrope's major contention is that cites are eco-friendly as they consume less resources than people living in places that have lower population densities. Options B,C,D does not directly contradict Calthrope's statement. Hence , they cannot be the reason why the statement that jars with most people. Option A is directly opposed to Calthrope's viewpoints. Hence, this option is most likely to jar with most people. Option A i the correct answer.

Correct answer: A

The author gives the example of Manaus to show how an entire community of people whose major job was deforestation of the jungle have now been able to prosper by making things such as mobile phones and televisions. Option A is the correct answer. It is the major reason for the author giving out the example of Manaus. Options D is incorrect and is not mentioned in the passage. Option B and C are the pros of being in a squatter city, but it is not the reason why the author gives the example of Manaus. Option A is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

Option A would help keep squatter cities environment friendly, as recycling material would reduce the amount of non-biodegradable materials present in the environment. Option B would also help squatter cities be more environment friendly by reducing pollution. Option D would also help squatter cities be more environment friendly as sorting garbage and treating them would go a long way in preventing soil and water pollution. Option C is incorrect. This is because, keeping the streets clean would mean that the wastes are somewhere in dumped in the environment near the local community. Hence, option C cannot be inferred from the passage and is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

The rapid spread of diseases in the slum would only affect the people in the slums and not the greenness of the cities. Hence it is incorrect. Option C is incorrect as the incidence of crime in the West would not impact the greenness of the cities. Increasing cost of utilities , in the same way would not affect the flora of the cities. An increase in carbon-di-oxide and global warming, however, would contribute greatly to the change in climate. A change in climate would adversely affect the greenery in the cities. Hence, this would greatly undermine the author's stand that cities are indeed green.

Correct answer: D

From the sentence, "One hundred thousand people who would otherwise be deforesting the jungle around Manaus are now prospering in town making such things as mobile phones and televisions" given in the passage, option A can be inferred. "But if they are overall a net good for those who move there, it is because cities offer more than just jobs. They are transformative" From this line, option B can be inferred. The entire second paragraph of the passage mentions how multiple people have got jobs in squatter cities. Hence, option C can be inferred. Option D is not a reason for cities being a good place to live in. Hence, this option cannot be inferred and is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

" They want to make this material accessible so people will browse it and be filled with wonder by it," he says. "But at its core, it's all about advertisements and driving traffic." Watrall says these images belong on the site of a museum or educational institution, where there is serious scholarship and a very different mission ". From the above-mentioned lines, it can be reasonably inferred that Dr Watrall is not critical if the digitally scanned images are on official museum websites and archaeological sites. Watrall's objections do not touch upon the ownership of the copyright of the scanned images. His objections are mainly about the uneasy relationship between Cyark and Google, and the profit-based motive of Google. Hence, option D is incorrect. Option C mentions the case when CyArk uploads the scanned images on museum sites only. This would invalidate the arguments made by Dr Watrall. Option A is incorrect as Dr Watrall considers the venture as a medium to promote Google itself. Just taking down advertisements would not invalidate the professor's claim. Option B is incorrect, as a ban in certain locations would certainly not prevent the promotion of and commercialization by Google. The same reason can be attributed to option D. CyArk not owning the copyright of the archaeological sites would not prevent using it for commercial purposes. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

From the lines, " [There's] another issue for some archaeologists and art historians. CyArk owns the copyrights of the scans — not the countries where these sites are located. That means the countries need CyArk's permission to use these images for commercial purposes", it can be seen that critics view the Google-CyArk project as one that appropriates the copyrights of the digital scans in such a way even the countries in which the sites are located need CyArk's permission to use the images. Option A, D , B are not mentioned anywhere in the passage. Option C is describes perfectly why the critics of the Google-CyArk project term it as digital colonialism and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: D

The option that would not help a company that digitally scans cultural sites would be the given answer. Option A is incorrect as preserving images of sites in case they are damaged would be one of the foremost arguments made by these companies. Option B and C would surely help the cause of companies that scan cultural sites. Hence,they are incorrect. Option D is the correct answer. A company that digitally scans cultural sites would not give the reason of being able to project itself as a protector of culture as a reason to scan the cultural sites. This is a self centered goal such a company and hence is the least likely of the arguments that would be used in this case. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

From the passage, it can be inferred that Dr. Watrall is not comfortable with the arrangement between Cyark and Google. He is of the opinion that though the material is promoted as a means for people to view the artifacts, the ulterior motive is for advertisements and commercial purposes. Option A is incorrect. The professor is uneasy about the arrangement between a non-profit organisation and a commercial organisation, whose values are, in reality, different from what they portray. Option B is incorrect. The professor is not in dissmissive of laypeople's access to specialist images and such information is not given in the passage. Option D is incorrect. The professor is only dismissive of the commercial agreement between two organisations that portray themselves to be involved in non-profit work. He is not against the use of digital technology in archaeological and cultural sites in developing countries. Option C is correct and it correctly represents the views of professor Dr. Watrall.

Correct answer: B

After reading the lines, "Erin Thompson, a professor of art crime at John Jay College of Criminal Justice in New York City, says it's the latest example of a Western nation appropriating a foreign culture, a centuries-long battle." it can be inferred that professor accuses CyArk of appropriating a foreign culture. The only option present that is an example of a western nation appropriating a foreign culture would be the seizing of ancient Egyptian artefacts by a Western museum. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Correct answer: 2143

After reading all the sentences , it can be inferred that though atonal music can sometimes sound random and chaotic, there is a lot of knowledge and skill that is required to perform atonal music. Sentence 2 talks about what exactly atonal music is. Hence, this sentence must be the first sentence of the paragraph. Sentence 1 talks about the misconceptions of atonal music that the uninitiated make. This sentence must be the second sentence of the passage. Sentence 4, now clears the misconception about atonality and states that it is one of the most important movements in music. Sentence 3 gives the reason why atonality is music is so difficult to attain and says that the untrained listener would change his mind when he understands the amount of knowledge and skill required to produce atonality. Therefore, sentences 4 and 3 form a block. Therefore the correct sequence of sentences is 2-1-4-3.

Correct answer: 2431

After reading all the sentences, it can be inferred that the passage talks about how comparisons are made between objects in different aspects, and how such comparisons are important facets of cognitive ability and consequently our adaptive behaviour. Sentence 2 introduces how adaptive behavior depends on cognitive economy. Hence, it is the first sentence of the paragraph. Sentence 4 elaborates on how different objects are compared. This sentence logically follows sentence 2. Sentence 3 shows how such comparisons have structure and order, and how they are not arbitary. Hence, sentence 3 follows sentence 4. Sentence 1 is completes the passage in a way that elucidates how animals and plats are equivalent to each other by exhibiting correlatoinal structure. The correct sequence is 2-4-3-1.

Correct answer: 4132

After reading all the lines it can be seen that the paragraph talks about the deleterious results of introducing the concept of women's time, and how the everyday practices of both men and women incorporate a multiplicity of times. Sentence 4 introduces the concept of clock time which has been represented in feminist literature and it is the introductory sentence of the paragraph. The passage goes on to say that the concept of 'women's time' as is deleterious.Hence, sentence 1 follows sentence 4. Sentence 3 explains how the concept of clock time actually works out for working sole fathers and working sole mothers. It follows sentence 1. Sentence 2 gives a summary of the paragraph which states that the everyday caring practices involve a multiplicity of times hence it would be the last sentence of the paragraph. The correct order of sequence is 4-1-3-2.

Correct answer: A

The main points of the passage can be summarized as follows: In summary, the passage emphasizes the multifaceted nature of language, its evolutionary development, and its reliance on cognitive abilities such as memory. It also underscores that while language is unique to humans, it is not a standalone trait and incorporates elements beyond language-specific features. The passage mentions that language is a complex bundle of traits that must have evolved over a significant time frame. It also states that language draws on aspects of cognition that are long established in the primate lineage, such as memory. This suggests that language did not emerge in isolation but rather built upon preexisting cognitive capacities. Memory plays a crucial role in language, as language involves storing, retrieving, and processing linguistic information. Through the use of memory, individuals can learn and recall words, phrases, grammar rules, and other linguistic elements. Memory also allows for the retention and transmission of cultural knowledge and language acquisition in individuals and across generations. Therefore, Option A accurately captures the notion that language evolved by incorporating linguistic features onto existing cognitive abilities, notably memory. Option B is partially correct as it acknowledges the evolution of language and its connection to memory. However, it does not capture the idea that language is a complex bundle of traits or the absence of definitive evidence for language in other species. While Option C captures the idea that language is not a single, uniform entity, it fails to encompass the complete message of the passage. The passage emphasizes that language is more than just the end result of linguistic evolution. It highlights that language also relies on cognitive features that are established in the primate lineage, such as memory. Additionally, the passage mentions that there is no definitive evidence of language in other species. These aspects are not adequately represented in option C. Option D is partially correct in stating that language is distinctively human. However, it fails to capture the complexity of language and the fact that it is a bundle of traits. It also overlooks the possibility that evidence for language in other species may be inconclusive rather than entirely nonexistent. In comparison to these options, Option A stands out as the best summary because it specifically addresses the evolution of language and highlights the role of cognition, particularly memory, in its development.

Correct answer: C

After reading the entire paragraph, it can be inferred that the main idea of the passage is that while the inventors of the open-plan offices had the liberation of office dwellers from boxes in mind, the companies used it to pack as much people as possible inside. Option A is incorrect as the passage makes no mentions about workers satisfaction. Option B is incorrect as it misrepresents the timeline given in the passage. Cubicles existed earlier and only later were wall free office spaces invented. Option D is incorrect as it could not be inferred from the passage that the companies that did not believe in democratic ideology Option C correctly encapsulates the main idea of the passage and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: B

After reading all the lines of the paragraph, it is evident that social movement organisations depend on organisations with hybrid identities because , within them they contain individuals with multiple points of views on different movements and issues. The example gives shows how people who are campaigning for non-anti-war movements are more likely to join hybrid organisations. It also says that organisations with hybrid identities occupy more central positions within organisations that are involved in anti-war movements. Option A is incorrect. The passage talks more about why hybrid organisations are vital to providing participants in social movements. Option C is just an illustration of the idea that the paragraph is trying to make. Hence, it would not be the most appropriate summary of the paragraph. Option D is incorrect. From the paragraph we can infer that hybrid organisations attract individuals that are deeply involved in non-anti-war movements. Option B is an appropriate summary of the passage and hence it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: 2

After reading all the sentences it can be inferred that the passage talks about the impact of ocean plastic on marine organisms. Sentence 4 introduces the important and pervasive environmental problem of having plastic in the oceans.Hence it is the first sentence of the passage. Sentence 1 gives the reason behind why ocean plastic is problematic, elucidating that marine animals eat it. Hence it should follow sentence 4. Sentence 5 gives the consequences of marine animals eating ocean plastic. Sentence 3 further elaborates sentence 5 and follows it. Hence the correct order of sentences is 4-1-5-3. Sentence 2 does not fit in with the rest of the passage and is the correct option.

Correct answer: 3421

After reading all the sentences it can be reasonably inferred that the passage talks about the ancient belief system called telelogy which describes how nature has a predetermined destiny associated with its component parts, and how these parts fit together into an ordered system. Sentence 3 introduces the idea of the notion of balance of nature. Hence, this would serve as the introductory sentence. Sentence 4 gives an example of a system that tries to explain the balance in nature called telelogy. Hence, this sentence follows sentence 3. Sentence, 2 follows sentence 4 as it furthers the idea given in sentence 4. It explains about how the component parts explained in sentence 4 fit together. Sentence 1 would serve as the concluding sentence as it gives the necessary condition required to have a belief that has been explained in sentences 4 and 2. Hence, the correct ordering of the sentences is 3-4-2-1.

Correct answer: 1

After reading all the sentences, it can be reasonably inferred that the passage talks about how rumination is not the way to achieve-self realization, but another method favored by Caesar, 'illeism' would help a person see past his biases. Sentence 4 introduces the idea of rumination. Hence this sentence would serve as the introductory sentence. Sentence 3 follows sentence 4 because it indicates the results of the research done on rumination. Sentence 2 would be the next logical progression, since it puts forth an alternative to rumination, known as illeism. Sentence 2 and sentence 5 would form a block as sentence 5 explains the consequences of adopting the ancient method of illeism, mentioned in sentence 2. 4-3-2-5 would be the correct ordering of the sentences. Sentence 1 does not fit in with the passage and hence, it is the correct answer.

Correct answer: 2

After reading all the sentences it is clear that the paragraph talks about how to understand the humor behind the single panel comics. The sentence 1 sets the platform for the author to explain how to infer humour in a single panel comic. Consider the sentences 3,4,5. Those sentences are aimed at the reader. "3. Often, the humor requires you to imagine what happened in the instant immediately before or immediately after the panel you’re being shown." "4.To get the joke, you actually have to figure out what some of these missing panels must be." "5. It is as though the cartoonist devised a series of panels to tell the story and has chosen to show you only one - and typically not even the funniest." Sentence 2 on the other hand is a stand alone sentence that does not fit in with the rest of the paragraph. Hence, it is the odd sentence.

Correct answer: B

From the condition given in the premise, we can make the following table:

The information known about Rounds 1 through 6: 1. Gordon(G) did not score consecutively in any two rounds. 2. Eric(E) and Fatima(F) both scored in a round.

By observing the table:

1. Jordan(J) scored 7 points in both the rounds 5th & 6th.

2. Amita (A) scored 1,7 points then she scored 7 in the first round.

3. Bala (B) scored 1 point in both the rounds 1st and 2nd.

4. Ikea (I) scored 1 point in the round 4th and 5th.

5. Gordon(G- 7,7,3 ) did not score consecutively in any two rounds so it scored in 2nd, 4th and 6th rounds respectively.

We can make the following table from the details given in the question.

T: Total after the sixth round and TT: Total after the 10th round.

1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. So He scored 1 point in the rounds 8th, 9th and 10th.

2. Ikea scored 15 points (1,7,7) in three rounds respectively.

3. Eric scored 7 in round 10.

4. Amita will score 3 in round 10, and 7 in round 7.

We can make the following table:

Hence option B is correct.

Correct answer: D

From the condition given in the premise, we can make the following table:

The information known about Rounds 1 through 6: 1. Gordon(G) did not score consecutively in any two rounds. 2. Eric(E) and Fatima(F) both scored in a round.

By observing the table:

1. Jordan(J) scored 7 points in both the rounds 5th & 6th.

2. Amita (A) scored 1,7 points then she scored 7 in the first round.

3. Bala (B) scored 1 point in both the rounds 1st and 2nd.

4. Ikea (I) scored 1 point in the round 4th and 5th.

5. Gordon(G- 7,7,3 ) did not score consecutively in any two rounds so it scored in 2nd, 4th and 6th rounds respectively.

We can make the following table from the details given in the question.

T: Total after the sixth round and TT: Total after the 10th round.

1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. So He scored 1 point in the rounds 8th, 9th and 10th.

2. Ikea scored 15 points (1,7,7) in three rounds respectively.

3. Eric scored 7 in round 10.

4. Amita will score 3 in round 10, and 7 in round 7.

We can make the following table:

Hence option D is correct.

Correct answer: D

From the condition given in the premise, we can make the following table:

The information known about Rounds 1 through 6: 1. Gordon(G) did not score consecutively in any two rounds. 2. Eric(E) and Fatima(F) both scored in a round.

By observing the table:

1. Jordan(J) scored 7 points in both the rounds 5th & 6th.

2. Amita (A) scored 1,7 points then she scored 7 in the first round.

3. Bala (B) scored 1 point in both the rounds 1st and 2nd.

4. Ikea (I) scored 1 point in the round 4th and 5th.

5. Gordon(G- 7,7,3 ) did not score consecutively in any two rounds so it scored in 2nd, 4th and 6th rounds respectively.

We can make the following table from the details given in the question.

T: Total after the sixth round and TT: Total after the 10th round.

1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. So He scored 1 point in the rounds 8th, 9th and 10th.

2. Ikea scored 15 points (1,7,7) in three rounds respectively.

3. Eric scored 7 in round 10.

4. Amita will score 3 in round 10, and 7 in round 7.

We can make the following table:

Hence option D is correct.

Correct answer: D

From the condition given in the premise, we can make the following table:

The information known about Rounds 1 through 6: 1. Gordon(G) did not score consecutively in any two rounds. 2. Eric(E) and Fatima(F) both scored in a round.

By observing the table:

1. Jordan(J) scored 7 points in both the rounds 5th & 6th.

2. Amita (A) scored 1,7 points then she scored 7 in the first round.

3. Bala (B) scored 1 point in both the rounds 1st and 2nd.

4. Ikea (I) scored 1 point in the round 4th and 5th.

5. Gordon(G- 7,7,3 ) did not score consecutively in any two rounds so it scored in 2nd, 4th and 6th rounds respectively.

We can make the following table from the details given in the question.

T: Total after the sixth round and TT: Total after the 10th round.

1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. So He scored 1 point in the rounds 8th, 9th and 10th.

2. Ikea scored 15 points (1,7,7) in three rounds respectively.

3. Eric scored 7 in round 10.

4. Amita will score 3 in round 10, and 7 in round 7.

We can make the following table:

Hence option D is correct.

Correct answer: A

The states which satisfy the condition given in the question: Maharashtra, Mizoram, Sikkim, Goa, Arunachal, Kerla, Meghalaya.....7 states The ‘Heavy Monsoon States’ have a negative deviation: Arunachal, Kerla, Meghalaya = 3/7x100=42.86% Option A

Correct answer: A

All the states which satisfy the condition for ' Low monsoon state' are Gujrat (+25%), Karnataka (+20%), Rajasthan (+15), MP (+10%), Assam (-10%), WB (-30%), Jharkhand (-35%), Delhi (-40%) and Manipur (-60%). The median of all the deviation is -10% Assam.

Correct answer: D

The states Assam, WB, Jharkhand, Delhi and Manipur satisfy the conditions given in the question. The actual rainfall of all these states in 2019 are 600,600,400,300,400 Average of these states= 2300/5=460mm

Correct answer: C

The actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 is 20% more than the rainfall in 2009. So If the actual rainfall in 2009 = x mm Then the actual rainfall in 2019= 1.2x mm Actual rainfall in 2019= 600mm Then, actual rainfall in 2009 = 500mm As deviation is +25% so average 2009 - 2018 is 600/1.25 = 480 LPA 2019 = (480×10 - 500 + 600 )/10 = 490mm Answer C

Correct answer: D

All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common end term (ET) worth 100 marks each.

Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks.

5x4=20, 10x3=30, 15x2=30

The total possible with considering the minimum number of questions of each type = 20+30+30=80 marks.

Rest 20 marks are possible by the following cases: {5,5,5,5} {5,5,10} {10,10} {5,15}

ET contained more questions than MT.

Thus MT cannot consider the case {5,5,5,5}

The number of questions in each case:

1) {5,5,5,5} = 9+4 =13 questions

2) {5,5,10} = 9+3 =12 questions

3) {10,10} = 9+2 =11 questions

4) {5,15} = 9+2 =11 questions

Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions. The total number of questions should be multiple of 6, thus the total number of questions will be 24.

For ET and MT, there are 2 cases :

{5,5,5,5}{5,15}

{5,5,5,5}{10,10}

According to the statement (i), Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks. Thus {10,10} case is not possible.

MT {5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15,15}

ET {5,5,5,5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15}

From statement (i),(ii),(iv),(v), every other faculty member prepared two questions for MT. we can create the following table:

{ Annie(A), Beti(B), Chetan(C), Dave (D), Fakir(F) }

There are 24 questions in total so each faculty will make 4 questions.

We can create the following table for ET.

Hence the correct option is D

Correct answer: A

All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common end term (ET) worth 100 marks each.

Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks.

5x4=20, 10x3=30, 15x2=30

The total possible with considering the minimum number of questions of each type = 20+30+30=80 marks.

Rest 20 marks are possible by the following cases: {5,5,5,5} {5,5,10} {10,10} {5,15}

ET contained more questions than MT.

Thus MT cannot consider the case {5,5,5,5}

The number of questions in each case:

1) {5,5,5,5} = 9+4 =13 questions

2) {5,5,10} = 9+3 =12 questions

3) {10,10} = 9+2 =11 questions

4) {5,15} = 9+2 =11 questions

Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions. The total number of questions should be multiple of 6, thus the total number of questions will be 24.

For ET and MT, there are 2 cases :

{5,5,5,5}{5,15}

{5,5,5,5}{10,10}

According to the statement (i), Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks. Thus {10,10} case is not possible.

MT {5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15,15}

ET {5,5,5,5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15}

From statement (i),(ii),(iv),(v), every other faculty member prepared two questions for MT. we can create the following table:

{ Annie(A), Beti(B), Chetan(C), Dave (D), Fakir(F) }

There are 24 questions in total so each faculty will make 4 questions.

We can create the following table for ET.

Hence the correct option is A

Correct answer: D

All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common end term (ET) worth 100 marks each.

Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks.

5x4=20, 10x3=30, 15x2=30

The total possible with considering the minimum number of questions of each type = 20+30+30=80 marks.

Rest 20 marks are possible by the following cases: {5,5,5,5} {5,5,10} {10,10} {5,15}

ET contained more questions than MT.

Thus MT cannot consider the case {5,5,5,5}

The number of questions in each case:

1) {5,5,5,5} = 9+4 =13 questions

2) {5,5,10} = 9+3 =12 questions

3) {10,10} = 9+2 =11 questions

4) {5,15} = 9+2 =11 questions

Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions. The total number of questions should be multiple of 6, thus the total number of questions will be 24.

For ET and MT, there are 2 cases :

{5,5,5,5}{5,15}

{5,5,5,5}{10,10}

According to the statement (i), Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks. Thus {10,10} case is not possible.

MT {5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15,15}

ET {5,5,5,5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15}

From statement (i),(ii),(iv),(v), every other faculty member prepared two questions for MT. we can create the following table:

{ Annie(A), Beti(B), Chetan(C), Dave (D), Fakir(F) }

There are 24 questions in total so each faculty will make 4 questions.

We can create the following table for ET.

Hence the correct option is D

Correct answer: D

All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common end term (ET) worth 100 marks each.

Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks.

5x4=20, 10x3=30, 15x2=30

The total possible with considering the minimum number of questions of each type = 20+30+30=80 marks.

Rest 20 marks are possible by the following cases: {5,5,5,5} {5,5,10} {10,10} {5,15}

ET contained more questions than MT.

Thus MT cannot consider the case {5,5,5,5}

The number of questions in each case:

1) {5,5,5,5} = 9+4 =13 questions

2) {5,5,10} = 9+3 =12 questions

3) {10,10} = 9+2 =11 questions

4) {5,15} = 9+2 =11 questions

Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions. The total number of questions should be multiple of 6, thus the total number of questions will be 24.

For ET and MT, there are 2 cases :

{5,5,5,5}{5,15}

{5,5,5,5}{10,10}

According to the statement (i), Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks. Thus {10,10} case is not possible.

MT {5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15,15}

ET {5,5,5,5,5,5,5,5,10,10,10,15,15}

From statement (i),(ii),(iv),(v), every other faculty member prepared two questions for MT. we can create the following table:

{ Annie(A), Beti(B), Chetan(C), Dave (D), Fakir(F) }

There are 24 questions in total so each faculty will make 4 questions.

We can create the following table for ET.

Hence the correct option is D

Correct answer: 13

We can make the following table from "the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4."

If the minimum and maximum value are 1, then the sum of the three pouches in the middle will be Rs 3.

If we calculate the maximum and minimum value possible for each slot in column 1. For the slot, column 1 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 10{2,4,4} while the minimum value possible is 8{2,2,4}.

Similarly, for the slot, column 1 and row 2, the maximum value possible is 13{3,5,5} while the minimum value possible is 11{3,3,5}.

It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. Thus the sum of coins in a row or column must be a multiple of 9.

So, we can iterate that 10,13,4 ...{27} is the only sum possible for the slots of column 1.

We now know two elements of row 2, thus we can iterate from the maximum and the minimum value possible for the slot {cloumn 3, row 2} that 38 is the only value possible for the slot.

We can make the following table:

Similarly, we can find the amount for Column 2.

For the slot, column 2 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 22{6,8,8} while the minimum value possible is 20{6,6,8}.

For the slot, column 2 and row 3, the maximum value possible is 5{1,2,3} while the minimum value possible is 4{1,1,2}.

Thus {20,3,4} is the only solution possible.

We can similarly make the following table for the last column.

The total amount of money (in rupees) in the three pouches kept in the first column of the second row=13

Correct answer 13

Correct answer: 8

We can make the following table from "the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4."

If the minimum and maximum value are 1, then the sum of the three pouches in the middle will be Rs 3.

If we calculate the maximum and minimum value possible for each slot in column 1. For the slot, column 1 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 10{2,4,4} while the minimum value possible is 8{2,2,4}.

Similarly, for the slot, column 1 and row 2, the maximum value possible is 13{3,5,5} while the minimum value possible is 11{3,3,5}.

It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. Thus the sum of coins in a row or column must be a multiple of 9.

So, we can iterate that 10,13,4 ...{27} is the only sum possible for the slots of column 1.

We now know two elements of row 2, thus we can iterate from the maximum and the minimum value possible for the slot {cloumn 3, row 2} that 38 is the only value possible for the slot.

We can make the following table:

Similarly, we can find the amount for Column 2.

For the slot, column 2 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 22{6,8,8} while the minimum value possible is 20{6,6,8}.

For the slot, column 2 and row 3, the maximum value possible is 5{1,2,3} while the minimum value possible is 4{1,1,2}.

Thus {20,3,4} is the only solution possible.

We can similarly make the following table for the last column.

Answer 8

Correct answer: 2

We can make the following table from "the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4."

If the minimum and maximum value are 1, then the sum of the three pouches in the middle will be Rs 3.

If we calculate the maximum and minimum value possible for each slot in column 1. For the slot, column 1 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 10{2,4,4} while the minimum value possible is 8{2,2,4}.

Similarly, for the slot, column 1 and row 2, the maximum value possible is 13{3,5,5} while the minimum value possible is 11{3,3,5}.

It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. Thus the sum of coins in a row or column must be a multiple of 9.

So, we can iterate that 10,13,4 ...{27} is the only sum possible for the slots of column 1.

We now know two elements of row 2, thus we can iterate from the maximum and the minimum value possible for the slot {cloumn 3, row 2} that 38 is the only value possible for the slot.

We can make the following table:

Similarly, we can find the amount for Column 2.

For the slot, column 2 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 22{6,8,8} while the minimum value possible is 20{6,6,8}.

For the slot, column 2 and row 3, the maximum value possible is 5{1,2,3} while the minimum value possible is 4{1,1,2}.

Thus {20,3,4} is the only solution possible.

We can similarly make the following table for the last column.

Answer 2

Correct answer: 3

We can make the following table from "the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4."

If the minimum and maximum value are 1, then the sum of the three pouches in the middle will be Rs 3.

If we calculate the maximum and minimum value possible for each slot in column 1. For the slot, column 1 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 10{2,4,4} while the minimum value possible is 8{2,2,4}.

Similarly, for the slot, column 1 and row 2, the maximum value possible is 13{3,5,5} while the minimum value possible is 11{3,3,5}.

It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. Thus the sum of coins in a row or column must be a multiple of 9.

So, we can iterate that 10,13,4 ...{27} is the only sum possible for the slots of column 1.

We now know two elements of row 2, thus we can iterate from the maximum and the minimum value possible for the slot {cloumn 3, row 2} that 38 is the only value possible for the slot.

We can make the following table:

Similarly, we can find the amount for Column 2.

For the slot, column 2 and row 1, the maximum value possible is 22{6,8,8} while the minimum value possible is 20{6,6,8}.

For the slot, column 2 and row 3, the maximum value possible is 5{1,2,3} while the minimum value possible is 4{1,1,2}.

Thus {20,3,4} is the only solution possible.

We can similarly make the following table for the last column.

Answer 3

Correct answer: C

If all the doctors served the patients one after the other, then in 2.5 hrs, Ben will serve 15 patients, Kane will serve 10 patients and Wayne will serve 6 patients. A total of 31 patients can be served on a particular day.

Correct answer: B

If all the doctors served the patients one after the other, then in 2.5 hrs, Ben will serve 15 patients, Kane will serve 10 patients and Wayne will serve 6 patients. Ben will earn = 15*100=Rs 1500 Kane will earn = 10*200=Rs 2000 Wayne will earn = 6*300=Rs 1800 So Kane will earn the maximum amount in consultation charges on that day. Option B

Correct answer: C

Mr Singh is 13th in the sequence on all the three days.

The following table will show the sequence for Monday, Wednesday and Friday.

He will stay the longest when the 13th guy is served by Doctor Wayne.

From the table, on Monday he had to wait at the clinic for the maximum duration: till 10:15.

Option C

Correct answer: D

On Thursday, the preference order for the patients is Wayne, Ben and Kane.

The first two customers will be served by Wayne and Ben. While Kane will be empty for the first 15 mins. Then he and Ben will serve the next two customers and Wayne will be empty for 5 minutes as shown in the figure below.

As we can see that the cycle will repeat after every 30 mins.

So all three doctors are never simultaneously free.

Option D

Correct answer: C

From statement 1 and 2,Each team speaks exactly four languages. English and Chinese are spoken by all three teams, Basque and French by exactly two teams and the other languages by exactly one team, multiple options are possible.

In the following tables: A, B, C can be any team among Team 1,Team 2,Team 3.

From the data given in the question, the person who speaks Arabic also speaks French. Thus the only option possible is 'Table 2'.

According to statement 4, "Paula and Sally are together in exactly two teams."

Sally knows Basque, thus, she will be in group A and B, with Paula.

According to statement 5, Robert(Arabic) is in Team 1 and Quentin(Dutch) is in Team 3.

Thus, Group C is Team 1 and Group A is Team 3.

From the table, the correct option is C.

Correct answer: C

From statement 1 and 2,Each team speaks exactly four languages. English and Chinese are spoken by all three teams, Basque and French by exactly two teams and the other languages by exactly one team, multiple options are possible.

In the following tables: A, B, C can be any team among Team 1,Team 2,Team 3.

From the data given in the question, the person who speaks Arabic also speaks French. Thus the only option possible is 'Table 2'.

According to statement 4, "Paula and Sally are together in exactly two teams."

Sally knows Basque, thus, she will be in group A and B, with Paula.

According to statement 5, Robert(Arabic) is in Team 1 and Quentin(Dutch) is in Team 3.

Thus, Group C is Team 1 and Group A is Team 3.

From the table, the correct option is C.

Correct answer: C

From statement 1 and 2,Each team speaks exactly four languages. English and Chinese are spoken by all three teams, Basque and French by exactly two teams and the other languages by exactly one team, multiple options are possible.

In the following tables: A, B, C can be any team among Team 1,Team 2,Team 3.

From the data given in the question, the person who speaks Arabic also speaks French. Thus the only option possible is 'Table 2'.

According to statement 4, "Paula and Sally are together in exactly two teams."

Sally knows Basque, thus, she will be in group A and B, with Paula.

According to statement 5, Robert(Arabic) is in Team 1 and Quentin(Dutch) is in Team 3.

Thus, Group C is Team 1 and Group A is Team 3.

From the table, the correct option is C.

Correct answer: A

From statement 1 and 2,Each team speaks exactly four languages. English and Chinese are spoken by all three teams, Basque and French by exactly two teams and the other languages by exactly one team, multiple options are possible.

In the following tables: A, B, C can be any team among Team 1,Team 2,Team 3.

From the data given in the question, the person who speaks Arabic also speaks French. Thus the only option possible is 'Table 2'.

According to statement 4, "Paula and Sally are together in exactly two teams."

Sally knows Basque, thus, she will be in group A and B, with Paula.

According to statement 5, Robert(Arabic) is in Team 1 and Quentin(Dutch) is in Team 3.

Thus, Group C is Team 1 and Group A is Team 3.

From the table, the correct option is A.

Correct answer: 25

We can make the following table from the web chart given in the question:

If we consider the total cost in the year

2016 as 100, then according to Statement 1, the total revenue in 2016 must be 200.

The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, thus the total revenue in the year 2017 = 400.

We can find the revenue for the individual department in the year 2017, from the table.

There was no profit from the Electronics department in 2017, thus, we can find the total cost in 2017= 300

Considering the statement 4, we can find the total revenue in 2018 and tabulate the following table.

The percentage profit of the store in 2018= (250-200)/200= 25%

Correct answer: D

We can make the following table from the web chart given in the question:

If we consider the total cost in the year

2016 as 100, then according to Statement 1, the total revenue in 2016 must be 200.

The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, thus the total revenue in the year 2017 = 400.

We can find the revenue for the individual department in the year 2017, from the table.

There was no profit from the Electronics department in 2017, thus, we can find the total cost in 2017= 300

Considering the statement 4, we can find the total revenue in 2018 and tabulate the following table.

The ratio of revenue generated from the Produce department in 2017 to that in 2018 = 160:100= 8:5

Correct answer: 70

We can make the following table from the web chart given in the question:

If we consider the total cost in the year

2016 as 100, then according to Statement 1, the total revenue in 2016 must be 200.

The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, thus the total revenue in the year 2017 = 400.

We can find the revenue for the individual department in the year 2017, from the table.

There was no profit from the Electronics department in 2017, thus, we can find the total cost in 2017= 300

Considering the statement 4, we can find the total revenue in 2018 and tabulate the following table.

Profit in 2016 = 200-100= 100 Profit in the electronic department in 2016= 100-30=70 The total profits= for the store in 2016 were from the Electronics department 70%

Correct answer: C

We can make the following table from the web chart given in the question:

If we consider the total cost in the year

2016 as 100, then according to Statement 1, the total revenue in 2016 must be 200.

The store’s revenue doubled from 2016 to 2017, thus the total revenue in the year 2017 = 400.

We can find the revenue for the individual department in the year 2017, from the table.

There was no profit from the Electronics department in 2017, thus, we can find the total cost in 2017= 300

Considering the statement 4, we can find the total revenue in 2018 and tabulate the following table.

Profit percentage in 2017= (400-300)/300 %= 33.33%

Profit percentage in 2018= (250-200)/200 %= 25%

The approximate difference in profit percentages of the store in 2017 and 2018= (33.33-25)%= 8.33%

Option C.

Correct answer: 64

Total number of students surveyed= 500

Every student prefers one of the two candidates. Ragini(R) and Sunita(S).

Thus, R+S=500.

According to statement 2, "Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A."

The number of students who support Sunita(S)=200

The number of students who supported Ragini(R)=300

According to statements 2 and 3, 160 students who supported Sunita also supported the proposal A & 90 students who supported Ragini also supported proposal A.

According to statements 4 and 6, we can make the following Venn diagram for Sunita.

According to statement 5 and 7, we can make the following Venn diagram.

The number of students who preferred Sunita and the proposal A=160

=160/250= 64%

Correct answer: 84

Total number of students surveyed= 500

Every student prefers one of the two candidates. Ragini(R) and Sunita(S).

Thus, R+S=500.

According to statement 2, "Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A."

The number of students who support Sunita(S)=200

The number of students who supported Ragini(R)=300

According to statements 2 and 3, 160 students who supported Sunita also supported the proposal A & 90 students who supported Ragini also supported proposal A.

According to statements 4 and 6, we can make the following Venn diagram for Sunita.

According to statement 5 and 7, we can make the following Venn diagram.

The percentage of the students surveyed who did not support proposal A preferred Ragini as student union president = 210/250=84%

Answer 84

Correct answer: D

Total number of students surveyed= 500

Every student prefers one of the two candidates. Ragini(R) and Sunita(S).

Thus, R+S=500.

According to statement 2, "Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A."

The number of students who support Sunita(S)=200

The number of students who supported Ragini(R)=300

According to statements 2 and 3, 160 students who supported Sunita also supported the proposal A & 90 students who supported Ragini also supported proposal A.

According to statements 4 and 6, we can make the following Venn diagram for Sunita.

According to statement 5 and 7, we can make the following Venn diagram.

According to the Venn diagram, the students surveyed who supported both proposals A and B preferred Sunita as student union president $$\frac{50}{50+50}$$ % =50%

Correct answer: A

Total number of students surveyed= 500

Every student prefers one of the two candidates. Ragini(R) and Sunita(S).

Thus, R+S=500.

According to statement 2, "Among the 200 students who preferred Sunita as student union president, 80% supported proposal A."

The number of students who support Sunita(S)=200

The number of students who supported Ragini(R)=300

According to statements 2 and 3, 160 students who supported Sunita also supported the proposal A & 90 students who supported Ragini also supported proposal A.

According to statements 4 and 6, we can make the following Venn diagram for Sunita.

According to statement 5 and 7, we can make the following Venn diagram.

From the diagram, we can understand that option A is correct.

Correct answer: C

It is given that the average of the 30 integers = 5 Sum of the 30 integers = 30*5=150 There are exactly 20 integers whose value is less than 5. To maximise the average of the 20 integers, we have to assign minimum value to each of the remaining 10 integers So the sum of 10 integers = 10*6=60 The sum of the 20 integers = 150-60= 90 Average of 20 integers = $$\ \frac{\ 90}{20}$$ = 4.5

Correct answer: 20920

The amount with Amal at the end of 1 year = 12000*1.08+10000*1.03*1.03=23569 Interest received by Amal = 23569-22000=1569 Let the amount invested by Bimal = 100b Interest received by Bimal = 100b*7.5*1/100=7.5b It is given that the amount of interest received by both of them is the same 7.5b=1569 b=209.2 Amount invested by Bimal = 100b = 20920

Correct answer: D

$$\ \frac{\ n^2+3n+4n+12}{n^2-4n+3n-12}$$ =$$\ \frac{\ n^{ }\left(n+3\right)+4\left(n+3\right)}{n^{ }\left(n-4\right)+3\left(n-4\right)}$$ =$$\ \frac{\left(\ n+4\right)\left(n+3\right)}{\left(n-4\right)\left(n+3\right)}$$ =$$\ \frac{\left(\ n+4\right)}{\left(n-4\right)}$$ =$$\ \frac{\left(\ n-4\right)+8}{\left(n-4\right)}$$ =$$\ 1+\frac{8}{\left(n-4\right)}$$ which will be maximum when n-4 =8 n=12 D is the correct answer.

Correct answer: 4

$$n^2-m^2=105$$ (n-m)(n+m) = 1*105, 3*35, 5*21, 7*15, 15*7, 21*5, 35*3, 105*1. n-m=1, n+m=105 ==> n=53, m=52 n-m=3, n+m=35 ==> n=19, m=16 n-m=5, n+m=21 ==> n=13, m=8 n-m=7, n+m=15 ==> n=11, m=4 n-m=15, n+m=7 ==> n=11, m=-4 n-m=21, n+m=5 ==> n=13, m=-8 n-m=35, n+m=3 ==> n=19, m=-16 n-m=105, n+m=1 ==> n=53, m=-52 Since only positive integer values of m and n are required. There are 4 possible solutions.

Correct answer: D

When A and B met for the first time at 10:00 AM, A covered 60% of the track. So B must have covered 40% of the track. It is given that A returns to P at 10:12 AM i.e A covers 40% of the track in 12 minutes 60% of the track in 18 minutes B covers 40% of track when A covers 60% of the track. B covers 40% of the track in 18 minutes. B will cover the rest 60% in 27 minutes, hence it will return to B at 10:27 AM

Correct answer: B

$$a_1 - a_2 + a_3 - a_4 + .... + (-1)^{n - 1} a_n = n$$ It is clear from the above equation that when n is odd, the co-efficient of a is positive otherwise negative. $$a_1 - a_2 = 2$$ $$a_1 = a_2 + 2$$ $$a_1 - a_2 + a_3 = 3$$ On substituting the value of $$a_1$$ in the above equation, we get $$a_3$$ = 1 $$a_1 - a_2 + a_3 - a_4 = 4$$ On substituting the values of $$a_1, a_3$$ in the above equation, we get $$a_4$$ = -1 $$a_1 - a_2 + a_3 - a_4 +a_5 = 5$$ On substituting the values of $$a_1, a_3, a_4$$ in the above equation, we get $$a_5$$ = 1 So we can conclude that $$a_3, a_5, a_7....a_{n+1}$$ = 1 and $$a_2, a_4, a_6....a_{2n}$$ = -1 Now we have to find the value of $$a_{51} + a_{52} + .... + a_{1023}$$ Number of terms = 1023=51+(n-1)1 n=973 There will be 486 even and 487 odd terms, so the value of $$a_{51} + a_{52} + .... + a_{1023}$$ = 486*-1+487*1=1

Correct answer: D

Let 'h' be the height of the triangle ABC, semiperimeter(S) $$= \frac{4+4+r+4+4+r}{2} = 8+r$$, $$a=4+r, b=4+r, c=8$$

Area of triangle ABC $$=\ \ \sqrt{\ s\cdot\left(s-a\right)\left(s-b\right)\left(s-c\right)}=$$ $$= \sqrt{\left(\ 8+r\right)\times\ 4\times\ 4\times\ r}$$ = $$\ \frac{\ 1}{2}\times\ \left(4+4\right)\times\ height$$

Height (h) = $$\sqrt{\ \left(8+r\right)r}$$

Now, $$ h + r = 4 \longrightarrow \sqrt{\ \left(8+r\right)r} + r = 4$$ (Considering the height of the triangle)

$$\sqrt{\ \left(8+r\right)r}$$=4-r

16r=16

r=1 Alternatively,

$$\text{AE}^@+\text{EC}^2=\text{AC}^2 \longrightarrow 4^2+\left(4-r\right)^2 = \left(4+r\right)^2 \longrightarrow\ \longrightarrow\ \longrightarrow\ r=1$$

Correct answer: A

The roots of $$x^2 - 4x - log_{2}{A} = 0$$ will be real and distinct if and only if the discriminant is greater than zero 16+4*$$log_{2}{A}$$ > 0 $$log_{2}{A}$$ > -4 A> 1/16

Correct answer: D

Given, The quadratic equation $$x^2 + bx + c = 0$$ has two roots 4a and 3a 7a=-b 12$$a^2$$ = c We have to find the value of $$b^2 + c = 49a^2+ 12a^2=61a^2$$ Now lets verify the options 61$$a^2$$ = 3721 ==> a= 7.8 which is not an integer 61$$a^2$$ = 361 ==> a= 2.42 which is not an integer 61$$a^2$$ = 427 ==> a= 2.64 which is not an integer 61$$a^2$$ = 549 ==> a= 3 which is an integer

Correct answer: B

It is given that the base of the pyramid is square and each of the four sides are equilateral triangles.

Length of each side of the equilateral triangle = 20cm

Since the side of the triangle will be common to the square as well, the side of the square = 20cm

Let h be the vertical height of the pyramid ie OA

OB = 10 since it is half the side of the square

AB is the height of the equilateral triangle i.e 10$$\sqrt{\ 3}$$

AOB is a right angle, so applying the Pythagorean formula, we get

$$OA^2+ OB^2= AB^2$$

$$h^2$$ + 100= 300

h=10$$\sqrt{\ 2}$$

Correct answer: A

Let p be the length of AP.

It is given that $$\angle\ BAC\ =90\ $$ and $$\angle\ APC\ =90\ $$

Let $$\angle\ ABC\ =\theta\ $$, then $$\angle\ BAP\ =90-\theta\ $$ and $$\angle\ BCA\ =90-\theta\ $$

So $$\angle\ PAC\ =\theta\ $$

Triangles BPA and APC are similar

$$p^2=x\left(20-x\right)$$

We have to maximize the value of p, which will be maximum when x=20-x

x=10

Correct answer: A

$$\sqrt{\log_{e}{\dfrac{4x - x^2}{3}}}$$ will be real if $$\log_e\ \dfrac{\ 4x-x^2}{3}\ \ge\ 0$$ $$\dfrac{\ 4x-x^2}{3}\ \ge\ 1$$ $$\ 4x-x^2-3\ \ge\ 0$$ $$\ x^2-4x+3\ \le\ 0$$ $$1\le\ x\le\ 3$$

Correct answer: 13

$$5^x - 3^y = 13438$$ and $$5^{x - 1} + 3^{y + 1} = 9686$$ $$5^{x} + 3^{y}*15 = 9686*5$$ $$5^{x} + 3^{y}*15 = 48430$$ 16*$$3^y$$=34992 $$3^y$$ = 2187 y = 7 $$5^x$$=13438+2187=15625 x=6 x+y = 13

Correct answer: D

Each of three vessels A, B, C contains 500 ml of salt solution of strengths 10%, 22%, and 32%, respectively.

The amount of salt in vessels A, B, C = 50 ml, 110 ml, 160 ml respectively.

The amount of water in vessels A, B, C = 450 ml, 390 ml, 340 ml respectively.

In 100 ml solution in vessel A, there will be 10ml of salt and 90 ml of water

Now, 100 ml of the solution in vessel A is transferred to vessel B. Then, 100 ml of the solution in vessel B is transferred to vessel C. Finally, 100 ml of the solution in vessel C is transferred to vessel A

i.e after the first transfer, the amount of salt in vessels A, B, C = 40, 120, 160 ml respectively.

after the second transfer, the amount of salt in vessels A, B, C =40, 100, 180 ml respectively.

After the third transfer, the amount of salt in vessels A, B, C = 70, 100, 150 respectively.

Each transfer can be captured through the following table.

Percentage of salt in vessel A =$$\ \frac{\ 70}{500}\times\ 100$$

=14%

Correct answer: C

It is given that starting from 10:01 am, every minute a motorcycle leaves A and moves towards B. Forty-five such motorcycles reach B by 11 am. It means that the forty-fifth motorcycle starts at 10:45 AM at A and reaches B by 11:00 AM i.e 15 minutes. Since the speed of all the motorcycles is the same, all the motorcycles will take the same duration i.e 15 minutes. If the cyclist doubles the speed, then he will reach B by 10:30 AM. (Since if the speed is doubled, time is reduced by half) Since each motorcycle takes 15 minutes to reach B, 15 motorcycles would have reached B by the time the cyclist reaches B

Correct answer: A

It is given that the volume of all the cylinders is the same, so the volume of each cylinder = HCF of (405, 783, 351) =27 The number of iron cylinders = $$\ \frac{\ 405}{27}$$ = 15 The number of aluminium cylinders = $$\ \frac{\ 783}{27}$$ = 29 The number of copper cylinders = $$\ \frac{351\ }{27}$$ = 13 15*$$\pi\ r^2h=$$ 405 15*$$\pi\ 9*h=$$ 405 $$\pi\ h=3$$ Now we have to calculate the total surface area of all the cylinders Total number of cylinders = 15+29+13 = 57 Total surface area of the cylinder = 57*($$2\pi\ rh+2\pi\ r^2$$) =57(2*3*3 + 2*9*$$\pi\ $$) =$$1026(1 + \pi)$$

Correct answer: B

Let $$2^{3x}$$ = v $$2^{6x} + 2^{3x + 2} - 21 = 0$$ = $$v^2+4v-21=0$$ =(v+7)(v-3)=0 v=3, -7 $$2^{3x}$$ = 3 or $$2^{3x}$$ = -7(This can be negated) 3x=$$\log_23$$ x=$$\log_23$$/3

Correct answer: 44

$$2^4 \times 3^5 \times 10^4$$ =$$2^4 \times 3^5 \times 2^4*5^4$$ =$$2^8 \times 3^5 \times 5^4$$ For the factor to be a perfect square, the factor should be even power of the number. In $$2^8$$, the factors which are perfect squares are $$2^0, 2^2, 2^4, 2^6, 2^8$$ = 5 Similarly, in $$3^5$$, the factors which are perfect squares are $$3^0, 3^2, 3^4$$ = 3 In $$5^4$$, the factors which are perfect squares are $$5^0, 5^2, 5^4$$ = 3 Number of perfect squares greater than 1 = 5*3*3-1 =44

Correct answer: 7

Let the six-digit number be ABCDEF F = A+B+C, E= A+B, C=A, B= 2A, D= E+F. Therefore D = 2A+2B+C = 2A + 4A + A= 7A. A cannot be 0 as the number is a 6 digit number. A cannot be 2 as D would become 2 digit number. Therefore A is 1 and D is 7.

Correct answer: 48

Speed of John = 6kmph Speed of Mary = 7.5 kmph Lengths of tracks A and B = 325 m Let the length of track A be a, then the length of track B = 325-a 9 rounds of John on track A = 5 rounds of Mary on track B $$\ \frac{\ 9\times\ a}{6\ \times\ \ \frac{\ 5}{18}}\ =\ \ \frac{\ 5\cdot\left(325-a\right)}{7.5\times\ \ \frac{\ 5}{18}}$$ On solving we get , 13a=1300 a=100 The length of track A = 100m, track B = 225m Mary makes one round of track A = $$\ \frac{\ 100}{7.5\times\ \ \frac{\ 5}{18}}$$ = 48 sec

Correct answer: B

Let the number of fiction and non-fiction books in 2010 = 100a, 100b respectively It is given that the total number of books in 2010 = 11500 100a+100b = 11500 -------Eq 1 The number of fiction and non-fiction books in 2015 = 110a, 112b respectively 110a+112b = 12760 -------Eq 2 On solving both the equations we get, b=55, a= 60 The number of fiction books in 2015 = 110*60=6600

Correct answer: 12

It is given that John works altogether 172 hours i.e including regular and overtime hours. Let a be the regular hours, 172-a will be the overtime hours John's income from regular hours = 57*a John's income for working overtime hours = (172-a)*114 It is given that his income from overtime hours is 15% of his income from regular hours a*57*0.15 = (172-a)*114 a=160 The number of hours for which he worked overtime = 172-160=12 hrs

Correct answer: 4851

Let us first find the number of terms 47=1+(n-1)2 n=24 24*2n+1+3+5+....47=5280 48n+576=5280 48n=4704 n=98 Sum of first 98 terms = 98*99/2 =4851

Correct answer: A

CP of the table at which the shopkeeper procured each table = p It is given that shopkeeper sold the tables to Amal and Asim at a profit of 20% and at a loss of 20%, respectively The selling price of the tables = 1.2p and 0.8p to Amal and Asim respectively. Amal sells his table to Bimal at a profit of 30% So, CP of the table by Bimal (x)= 1.2p*1.3 = 1.56p Asim sells his table to Barun at a loss of 30% So, CP of the table by Barun (y)= 0.7*0.8p = 0.56p (x-y)/p = (1.56p-0.56p)/p = p/p=1

Correct answer: C

It is given that AD and BE are medians which are perpendicular to each other.

The lengths of AD and BE are 12cm and 9cm respectively.

It is known that the centroid G divides the median in the ratio of 2:1

Area of $$\triangle$$ ABC = 2* Area of the triangle ABD

Area of $$\triangle\ $$ABD = Area of $$\triangle\ $$ AGB + Area of $$\triangle\ $$ BGD

Since $$\angle\ AGB\ =\ \angle\ BGD\ =\ 90$$ (Given)

Area of $$\triangle\ $$ AGB = $$\ \frac{\ 1}{2}\times\ 8\times\ 6$$ = 24

Area of $$\triangle\ $$ BGD = $$\ \frac{\ 1}{2}\times\ 6\times\ 4$$ = 12

Area of $$\triangle\ $$ABD = 24+12=36

Area of $$\triangle\ ABC\ =\ 2\times\ 36=72$$

Correct answer: B

A: 15, 19, 23, 27, . . . . , 415 B: 14, 19, 24, 29, . . . , 464 Here the first common term = 19 Common difference = LCM of 5, 4=20 19+(n-1)20 $$\le\ $$ 415 (n-1)20 $$\le\ $$ 396 (n-1) $$\le\ $$ 19.8 n=20

Correct answer: D

$$\left(ax+by\right)^2=65^2$$ $$a^2x^2\ +\ b^2y^2+\ 2abxy\ =\ 65^2$$ $$k = ay - bx$$ $$k^2\ =\ a^2y^2+b^2x^2-2abxy$$ $$(a^2 + b^2)(x^2 + y^2 )= 25* 169$$ $$a^2x^2+a^2y^2+b^2x^2+b^2y^2=\ 25\times\ 169$$ $$k^2=\ 65^2\ -\ \left(25\times\ 169\right)$$ k = 0 D is the correct answer.

Correct answer: C

Let the cost of each bicycle= 100b CP of 10 bicycles = 1000b It is given that he sold six of these at a profit of 25% and the remaining four at a loss of 25% SP of 10 bicycles = 125b*6+75b*4 =1050b Profit = 1050b-1000b =50b 50b=2000 CP = 100b = 4000

Correct answer: 80

Let the score of D = 100d The score of C = 20% less than that of D = 80d The score of B = 25% more than C = 100d The score of A = 10% less than B =90d 90d=72 100d= 72*100/90 = 80

Correct answer: B

Let the salaries of Ramesh, Ganesh and Rajesh in 2010 be 6x, 5x, 7x respectively Let the salaries of Ramesh, Ganesh and Rajesh in 2015 be 3y, 4y, 3y respectively It is given that Ramesh’s salary increased by 25% during 2010-2015,3y = 1.25*6x y=2.5x Percentage increase in Rajesh's salary = 7.5-7/7=0.07 =7%

Correct answer: 150

Each interior angle in an n-sided polygon = $$\frac{\left(n-2\right)180\ }{n}$$ It is given that each interior angle of B is $$\frac{3}{2}$$ times each interior angle of A and b = 2a $$\frac{\left(b-2\right)180\ }{b}$$ = $$\ \frac{\ 3}{2}\times\ $$ $$\frac{\left(a-2\right)180\ }{a}$$ $$2\times\ \left(b-2\right)\times\ a\ =\ 3\times\ \left(a-2\right)\times\ b$$ 2(ab-2a) = 3(ab-2b) ab-6b+4a=0 a*2a-12a+4a=0 $$2a^2-8a=0$$ a(2a-8) = 0 a cannot be zero so 2a=8 a=4, b = 4*2=8 a+b = 12 Each interior angle of a regular polygon with 12 sides = $$\ \frac{\ \left(12-2\right)\times\ 180}{12}$$ =150

Correct answer: 12

Given, f(mn) = f(m)f(n) when m= n= 1, f(1) = f(1)*f(1) ==> f(1) = 1 when m=1, n= 2, f(2) = f(1)*f(2) ==> f(1) = 1 when m=n= 2, f(4) = f(2)*f(2) ==> f(4) = $$[f(2)]^2$$ Similarly f(8) = f(4)*f(2) =$$[f(2)]^3$$ f(24) = 54 $$[f(2)]^3$$ * $$[f(3)]$$ = $$3^3*2$$ On comparing LHS and RHS, we get f(2) = 3 and f(3) = 2 Now we have to find the value of f(18) f(18) = $$[f(2)]$$ * $$[f(3)]^2$$ = 3*4=12

Correct answer: B

Let the total work be LCM of 20, 40 = 40 units Efficiency of Anil and Sunil is 2 units and 1 unit per day respectively. Anil works alone for 3 days, so Anil must have completed 6 units. Bimal completes 10% of the work while working along with Anil and Sunil. Bimal must have completed 4 units. The remaining 30 units of work is done by Anil and Sunil Number of days taken by them 30/3=10 The total work is completed in 3+10=13 days

Correct answer: B

Let the scores of Rama, Anjali and Mohan be r, a, m. It is given that Rama's score was one-twelfth of the sum of the scores of Mohan and Anjali r=$$\ \frac{\ m+a}{12}$$ ———-(1) The scores of Rama, Anjali and Mohan after review = r+6, a+6, m+6 a+6:m+6:r+6 = 11:10:3 Let a+6 = 11x => a= 11x-6 m+6=10x => m=10x-6 r+ 6 =3x => r = 3x-6 Substituting these values in equation (1), we get 3x-6=$$\ \frac{\ 21x-12}{12}$$ 12(3x-6) = 21x-12 x=4 Anjali's score exceeds Rama's score by (a-r)=8x=32